Fire Officer Exam 2024: What are the Requirements? 1. Application Form 2. ID Pictures 3. Valid ID 4. PSA Birth Certificate 5. Examination Fee: ₱700.00 Fire Officer Exam Schedule: Qualifications All applicants must STRICTLY meet the following qualification requirements: Must be a Filipino citizen; Must be 21 to 35 years old at the date/time of filing of application; Must be of good moral character; Must be mentally and physically fit; Must not have been convicted by final judgment of an offense or crime involving moral turpitude, or of disgraceful or immoral conduct, dishonesty, examination irregularity, drunkenness or addiction to drugs; Must not have been dishonorably discharged from military service or dismissed for cause from any civilian positions in the government; and Must possess a baccalaureate degree from a recognized institution of learning. Important Note : a) Age requirement shall be waived for incumbent employees of the BFP. Age requirement shall also be waive...
Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions
Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They live together with the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of Lea. Jane loves Charlie very much. What was the crime committed by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape
- The RPC was based on the
A. Spanish penal code
B. English penal code
C. American penal code
D. Japanese penal code - A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the
logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
A. legal question
B. juridical question
C. prejudicial question
D. judicial question - A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty
is suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve - Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes - Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery - The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of
affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander- Deliberate planning of act before execution.
A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty - Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted
together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy - The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act - Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation - Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes- One of the following is an alternative circumstance.
A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation - If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,
what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender - At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning - The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a
criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition on the case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial - The security given for the release of a person in custody,
furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his
appearance before any court as required under the conditions
specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant - The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the
laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose
of determining such issue.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial
D. judgment - The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper
penalty and
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment - It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
D. plea bargaining- It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence - It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence - A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence - When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence - Personal property that can be subject for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above - All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers - The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death.
A. abortion
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide - Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal
B. mysterious homicide
C. death under exceptional circumstances
D. tumultuous affray - The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty - Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.
A. 15-18 years old
B. 18-70 years old
C. 9 years old and below
D. between 9- and 15-years old - Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Qualified Homicide- PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing - Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When the two met the following day, Lito slapped Prof. Jose in the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion - A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve - Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes - Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery - The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander - Deliberate planning of act before execution.
A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty - Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy- the failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act - Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation - Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes - One of the following is an alternative circumstance.
A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation - If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,
what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender - At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning - The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial - The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant - The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial
D. judgment - The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment
- It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
D. plea bargaining - It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence - It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence - A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence - When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an
offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the
offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all the above
50. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers
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