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MAPEH REVIEWER
1. Which is NOT a historical painting of Amorsolo?
A. The first Baptism in the Philippines
B. Making of the Philippine Flag
C. Dalagang Bukid
D. President Emilio Aguinaldo
2. Who: is the Father of modern Filipino sculpture?
A. Napoleon Abvueva
B. Guillermo Tolentino
C. Constantin Brancusi
D. Rey Paz Contreras
3. Which work of Napoleon Abvueva exalts motherhood?
A. The kiss of Judas
B. Mother and child
C. The transconfiguration
D. Sunburst
4. The Oblation of UP is a work art done by .
A. Guillermo Tolentino
B. Napoleon Abvuevas
C. Rey Paz Contreras
D. Anastacio Tanchangco Caedo
5. Who is an outstanding Filipino Sculptor working with an urban refuse and ecological materials are artistic media?
A. Anastacio Tanchangco Caedo
B. Guillermo Tolentino
C. Napoleon Abvuevas
D. Rey Paz Contreras
6. Who is an outstanding Filipino Sculptor working with an urban refuse and ecological materials are artistic media?
A. Fernando Amorsolo
B. Vicente S. Manansala
C. Carlos Botong Francisco
D. Arthuro P. Luz
7. Which work of art Ang Kiukok won for him a bronze medal in the first International Art Exhibition in Saigon?
A. The Transfiguration Pieta
B. Seated Figure
C. Geometric Landscape
D. Pieta
8. Which is not one of the paintings of Victorio C. Edades?
A. Mother and child
B. The Artist and the model
C. Portrait of the Professor
D. Mother and Daughter
9. In his work he turned fragments of the historic past into vivid record of the legendary courage of the ancestors of his race like the ones seen in the City Hall of Manila. Who is referred to?
A. Galo Ocampo
B. Carlos “Botong” Francisco
C. Victorio C. Edades
D. Arturo P. Luz
10. The lush tropical sense of color and an abiding faith in the folk values typified by the towns people of Angono became the hallmark of his art. Who is Described?
A. Victorio C. Edades
B. Galo Ocampo
C. Carlos “Botong” Francisco
D. Arturo P. Luz
11. Which Buddha covered in gold considered to be the oldest statues of Buddha in the world ( 338 years old ) and has unique status among the Chinese?
A. The Seated Buddha
B. The Lying Buddha
C. The Sleeping Buddha
D. The Big Buddha
12. Which is TRUE of Taj Mahal?
I. a unique blend of Persian, Islamic, and Indian architectural styles
II. involved 22, 000 workers for its construction
III. tomb of Mumtaz Mahal, wife of the later tomb of Shan Jahan
A. III only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
13. Which is the largest monument and the best preserved architectural masterpiece in Combodia. Its perfection in composition, balance, proportions, relief’s and sculpture make it once of the finest monuments in the world.
A. Akapan Pyramid
B. Ta Prohm
C. Ankor Vat
D. Angkor Tom
14. With which of art was China Known during then Yuan and the Ming dynasty?
A. Statues of Buddha
B. Blue and white porcelain
C. Landscape painting
D. The Elephants
15. Who is the father of Spanish zarzuela in the Philippines?
A. Heremogenes
B. Alejandro Cuvero
C. Severino Reyes
D. Pascual Poblete
16. Lino Brocka, National Artist for cinema as the “Darling” of what production company?
A. LVN Production
B. Regal Films
C. Sampaguita Pictures
D. LEA Production
17. Which Buddha covered in gold is considered in gold is considered to be the oldest statue of Buddha in the world (338 years old) and as unique status among the Chinese?
A. The Seated Buddha
B. The Lying Buddha
C. The Sleeping Buddha
D. The Big Buddha
18. . Which is TRUE of Taj Mahal?
I. a unique blend of Persian, Islamic, and Indian architectural styles
II. involved 22, 000 workers for its construction
III. tomb of Mumtaz Mahal, wife of the later tomb of Shan Jahan
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III only
19. Which is the largest monument and the best preserved architectural masterpiece in Combodia. Its perfection in composition, balance, proportions, relief’s and sculpture make it once of the finest monuments in the world.
A. Ta Prohm
B. Akapan Pyramid
C. Angkor Tom
D. Ankor Vat
20. With which work of art was China Known during the Yuan and the Ming dynasty?
A. Statues of Buddha
B. Blue and white porcelain
C. Landscape Painting
D. The Elephants
21. Which painting was painted by Juan Luna and is the most prized painting of the Philippines?
A. Spoliarium
B. Christian Virgins
C. Antipolo
D. Our Lady of Light
22. Leandro Locsin design the .
A. Manila Metropolitan Theater
B. Cultural Center of the Philippines
C. GSIS Building
D. Manila Jia-building
23. One of the most popular images during the Commonwealth of the Philippines is Fernando Amorsolo’s .
A. Early Filipino State Weddings
B. Making of the Philippines Flag
C. The Mestiza
D. Rice Planting
24. Which painting did Felix Resurrection Hidalgo’s enter in an exhibit in Madrid together with the Spoliarium?
A. Adios al sol
B. Las virgenes Cristianas expuestas al populacho
C. La Barca de Aqueronte
D. Laguna estiga
25. Who was the first mentor of Fernando Amorsolo, the first National Artist of the Philippines who was given a posthumous ward for Visual Arts in 1972
A. Ignacio Zuloaga
B. Enrique Zobel
C. Fabia Dela Rosa
D. Joaquin Solla
26. Who is acclaimed as the “Father of Philippines Impression”?
A. Antonio Molina
B. Alejandro Cuvero
C. Bela Bartok
D. Jean Sibelius
27. Which is considered the most beautiful and amazing paint that Fernando Amorsolo did?
A. Rice Plating
B. Corner of the Hell
C. Dalagang Bukid
D. Defense of a Filipina Woman’s Honor
28. Fernando Amorsolo painted the following. Afternoon Meal of the Workers ( Noonday Meal of the Rice Workers ) ( 1939 ), Dalagang Bukid ( 1936
), Early Filipino State Wedding and the First Baptism in the Philippines. These prove that Amorsolo was a painter .
A. men
B. children
C. rural landscape
D. the exploited
29. Which is NOT a historical painting of Amorsolo?
A. Dalagang Bukid
B. Making of the Philippine Flag
C. The first Baptism in the Philippines
D. President Emilio Aguinaldo
30. Who is the Father of modern Filipino sculpture?
A. Rey Paz Contreras
B. Guillermo Tolentino
C. Constantin Brancusi
D. Napoleon Abvueva
31. Which work of Napoleon Abvueva exalts motherhood?
A. Mother and child
B. The kiss of Judas
C. The transconfiguration
D. Sunburst
32. The Oblation of UP is a work art done by .
A. Rey Paz Contreras
B. Napoleon Abvuevas
C. Guillermo Tolentino
D. Anastacio Tanchangco Caedo
33. Who is an outstanding Filipino Sculptor working with an urban refuse and ecological materials are artistic media?
A. Rey Paz Contreras
B. Guillermo Tolentino
C. Napoleon Abvuevas
D. Anastacio Tanchangco Caedo
34. Whose paintings are described as vision of reality teetering the edge of abstraction?
A. Fernando Amorsolo
B. Vicente S. Manansala
C. Carlos Botong Francisco
D. Arthuro P. Luz
35. Which work of art Ang Kiukok won for him a bronze medal in the first International Art Exhibition in Saigon?
A. Pieta
B. Seated Figure
C. Geometric Landscape
D. The Transfiguration
36. The following are paintings of Victorio C. Edades EXEPT .
A. Portrait of the Professor
B. The Artistic and the model
C. Mother and Child
D. Mother and Daughter
37. In his works he turned fragments of the historic past into vivid record of the legendary courage of
ancestors of his race like the ones seen in the City Hall of Manila. Who is referred to?
A. Carlos “Botong” Francisco
B. Galo Ocampo
C. Victorio C. Edades
D. Arturo P. Luz
38. The lush tropical sense of color and abiding faith in folk values typified by the townspeople of Angono became the hallmark of his art. Who is described?
A. Arturo P. Luz
B. Galo Ocampo
C. Victorio Edades
D. Carlos “Botong” Francisco
39. Which is considered the most beautiful and amazing paint that Fernando Amorsolo did?
A. Rice Plating
B. Corner of the Hell
C. Dalagang Bukid
D. Defense of a Filipina Woman’s Honor
40. Fernando Amorsolo painted the following. Afternoon Meal of the Workers ( Noonday Meal of the Rice Workers ) ( 1939 ), Dalagang Bukid ( 1936), Early Filipino State Wedding and the First Baptism in the Philippines. These prove that Amorsolo was a painter .
A. children
B. rural landscape
C. men
D. the exploited
41. Don’t wait for the end of the unit to check whether your students are learning or not. This means, do .
A. Formative tests
B. Authentic tests
C. Summative tests
D. Alternative tests
42. What should you use to ensure a more objective assessment of performance?
A. Table of Specifications
B. Likert scale
C. Checklist
D. Scoring rubric
43. MAPEH is generally a skill subject. Which form of assessment is most appropriate?
A. Authentic
B. Tradition
C. Formative
D. Summative
44. You want to find out if your students learned
how to swim. Which assessment is most appropriate?
A. Performance test
B. Summative
C. Product
D. Formative
45. While you are practicing a skill you want to find out how well your students can execute the skill correctly. Which form of assessment applies?
A. Summative
B. Balance
C. Formative
D. Indirect
46. Does MAPEH make use traditional assessment?
A. No, authentic tests only
B. Yes, for knowledge-based items.
C. Yes for skill-based items.
D. No, always authentic assessment.
47. At the end of a quarter, you give an end-of-the- quarter culminating activity. What kind of assessment is this?
A. Direct
B. Summative
C. Formative
D. Indirect
48. For art subject, a culminating activity in the form of art exhibits falls?
A. Performance
B. Summative
C. Product
D. Formative
49. Assessment for learning in MAPEH refers to
assessment.
A. product
B. formative
C. summative
D. performance
50. Assessment of learning in MAPEH refers to assessment.
A. formative
B. product
C. summative
D. preformance
MAPEH PART 2
51. To ensure objectivity of scoring in MAPEH, which is necessary?
A. Scoring rubric
B. Scope of the test
C. Table of specification
D. Right minus wrong policy
52. Which is the practical test that we used to do in Physical Education classes?
A. Performance
B. Drill test
C. Product assessment
D. exhibit
53. You want to know if your students in music can now read notes? Which should you use?
A. Performance test
B. Indirect test
C. Product
D. Traditional test
54. You want test your Health student’s mastery of the Basic Food Groups. Which should you use?
A. Authentic test
B. Summative test
C. Formative test
D. Written test
55. Which are the responsibilities of a coach?
I. Developing participants’ physical and psychological fitness of athletes
II. Providing the best possible practical conditions in order to maximize athletes performance
III. Ensure that his/her preferred team perform best
A. I and II
B. II only
C. III only
D. I only
56. Which is/are preventive forms of officiating? Takes two forms.
I. One is helping players to avoid violations.
II. Notifying a player not to continue a foul.
III. Resolving a fight between the teams.
A. I and III
B. I only
C. III only
D. II only
57. What skills are include in sport management?
I. Planning
II. Organizing
III. Directing
IV. Controlling
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
58. Which type of tournament format is the easiest and fastest way to declare a winner?
A. Single Elimination
B. Double Elimination
C. Round Robin
D. Double Round Robin
59. If the practices is inversely proportional to number of mistakes committed in choral rendition, this means that the practice was .
A. neutral impact
B. quite long
C. ineffective
D. effective
60. You want to study how much importance schools give to MAPEH as a subject. How will you gather data?
I. Study documents that bear time allotment of subjects
II. Interview teachers and schools heads on their perceptions on the importance of the MAPEH subject
III. Gather data on how many MAPEH related activities are organized
A. III only
B. I, II and III
C. I and II
D. II only
61. In teaching contemporary art you draw connection between art and other subject and important issues I society. Which approach in teaching art is applied?
A. Collaborative
B. Interdisciplinary
C. Contemporary
D. Reflective
62. If in you Art class you are occupied with philosophical discussion such as creating art that questions life and reality, discussion on religion, discussion of good and evil, creating religious art with which of the multiple intelligences are you occupied?
A. Spatial
B. Interpersonal
C. Existential
D. Intrapersonal
63. In your ART class you encourage children to tell you how they feel before the end of the period by sketching smiley or lonely face or whatever is
appropriate. You practice caters to which of the multiple intelligence?
A. Existential
B. Intrapersonal
C. Spatial
D. Interpersonal
64. When do the PE students need their bodily- kinesthetic intelligence? When they
A. run kick, throw and catch
B. anticipate trajectories of flying balls
C. discuss game strategy
D. keep score and calculate
65. Which of the multiple intelligence I needed when the PE student orients himself to the playing field?
A. Interpersonal Intelligence
B. Spatial Intelligence
C. Intrapersonal Intelligence
D. Existential intelligence
66. A PE student uses his linguistic intelligence when
A. discusses game strategy, read rule
B. calculates angles of release for throwing and kicking
C. uses rhythm when running
D. work with teammates
67. Which intelligence of the MAPEH student is challenged when he works with other varying skill level and abilities
A. Intrapersonal intelligence
B. Linguistic intelligence
C. Intrapersonal intelligence
D. Interpersonal intelligence
68. In which sense is the K to 12 Curriculum Framework for Health constructivist
I. It is learner-centered
II. It is development appropriate.
III. It connects new learning to prior experience.
A. I, II and III
B. I and III
C. I only
D. II and III only
69. When does the MAPEH teacher employ differentiated instruction?
A. When he makes use of different teaching activities
B. When he allows students to do their own thing
C. When he proposes for homogenous sectioning
D. When he gives attention to the most dominant MI group
70. Health teachers make use of art and music to impart health care messages, Which approach do they?
A. Inquiry-based
B. Integrated
C. Collaborative
D. Problem-based
71. Which practices goes with authentic assessment?
A. Make student play volleyball to determine if they learned how play volleyball
B. Make student recite the do’s and don’t’s of playing volleyball
C. Make student check their own answer after a quiz
D. Make student come up with a flow chart to demonstrate
72. Here is a sample item:
Record your food intake over a period of three days ( at least one of the days needs to be a Saturday or Sunday ). Record what you eat, how much, when, and where. Evaluate your food intake by comparing it to the Dietary Guidelines for Filipinos and Food Guide Pyramid. Determine what nutritional goals you should set based on your evaluate of your food intake and make a plan for reaching those goals.
Which type of assessment task is this?
A. Constructed response
B. Perform task
C. Product
D. Traditional
73. On which should you base your assessment?
A. Learning outcomes
B. Lesson Procedure
C. Content
D. Course syllabus
74. MAPEH is a skill-dominant subject. You expect assessment to be more of the type.
A. authentic
B. traditional
C. practice
D. portfolio
75. You want to assess the attention of this particular learning outcome : draw at least 6 types of lines in art. Which assessment item is aligned to your outcome?
A. Describe the 6 types of lines art work
B. Draw at least 6 types of lines in art work
C. Make an album that show the 6 types of lines in art work
D. Point objects class that show the 6 types of lines
76. Which assessment is referred to as alternative assessment?
A. Indirect
B. Authentic
C. Traditional
D. Performance
77. Here is a learning outcome in the subject Research in MAPEH: apply theories and principle in conducting MAPEH research. Which assessment task is aligned to this learning outcome?
A. The student do Powerpoint presentation on theories and principles conducting research.
B. The student answer written test on theories and principles.
C. The students conduct research and present research report.
D. The student take a test on research.
78. MAPEH as a subject is focused on skills. You will expect assessment to have .
A. more performance test and product
B. less performance test and more product
C. more product and performance test
D. no written test
79. Is the written test part of assessment in MAPEH?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, if MAPEH teacher is highly traditional.
D. It depends on how the MAPEH teacher teach.
80. An effect assessment practice is multidimensional. How is this applied in MAPEH?
A. Assessment sticks to authentic.
B. The written test combines objectives and essay test
C. Assessment is done with the use of varied tools and tasks.
D. Assessment excludes traditional
81. As students I Art advance, they should be able to cite evidence from specific works of an art, such as specific features in a painting, the details of a score or script. As student develop, they should be able to gather and share more evidence to support their understanding; they should notice more n each work, and able to draw on it.
Which principle in teaching Art is explained in the above paragraph?
A. Allowing students to learn with their learning styles
B. Providing Multiple Intelligence-based learning experiences
C. Providing an explicit learning progression in the arts that is developmentally appropriate
D. Providing for more interaction between students and art work
82. Inspire all students without exception to reach their fullest creative potential. On which principle of an art education is this practice anchored?
A. Inclusive education
B. Constructive teaching
C. Integrative education
D. Collaborative teaching
83. According to the paragraph, which is true of art? Are transcends .
I. time
II. culture
III. age
IV. nation’s boundaries
A. I, II, III and IV
B. III and IIV
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
84. Based on the paragraph, what is TRUE of art?
A. Students express themselves through art
B. The arts are essential for non-formal education
C. The arts are essential to the education of all
D. Art is the most relevant to the picture-smart
85. For art education to be development appropriate in the lower grades, art education in the clearly in the early grades should be .
I. Sensory-based
II. Exploratory
III. Playful
IV. Specialized
A. I, II and III
B. IV
C. I and II
D. III and IV
86. Which illustrates a “spiraling” approach to Arts curriculum?
I. Comprehensive and sequential arts experiences that begin in preschool continue throughout high school to provide the foundation for lifelong learning in the arts.
II. Performing, creating and responding to the art are taught in Senior High School where students are more ready
III. In order to build a knowledge base in the arts, students need repeated exposure to process, content , concepts and question, and the opportunity to solve increasingly
challenging problems as their skills grow.
A. II
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
87. What is the role of the artist ini society as shown by Maria?
I. Innovator
II. Preserve of tradition
III. Critic of art work of earlier generation
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I only
D. II only
88. What does the above paragraph say about art work?
I. Performing, creating, and responding to the arts work?
II. Art work offers students the satisfaction of sharing their ideas talents
III. An artist is both an innovator and a preserves of tradition.
A. I and III
B. II only
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
89. There are four parts to teacher a new skills such as shooting iin basketball. If you teacher the skill, in which order should the four steps come?
I. Instruction
II. Applying
III. Demonstrating
IV. Confirming
A. I, II, II and IV
B. III, I, IV, II
C. I, II, III and IV
D. III, I, II and IV
90. Of these in teacher a new skill, in which step is the student made to practice the skill in a planned situation to help him/her transfer the learning?
A. Instructing
B. Demonstrating
C. Applying
D. Confirming
91. In which step do you, the PE teacher, give feedback on how successful the student has been?
A. Confirming
B. Demonstrating
C. Instructing
D. Confirming
92. In which step do you, the PE teacher, give feedback on how successful model on how to perform a skill?
A. Confirming
B. Demonstrating
C. Instructing
D. Confirming
93. Which is continuous form of practices which is the best for simple skills? An example would be a rally in badminton where the learner must repeated perform drop shots.
A. Distributed practice
B. Variable practicing
C. Massed practicing
D. Fixed practice
94. Which type of practice is best with discrete, closed skills?
A. Massed practice
B. Variable practice
C. Fixed practice
D. Distributed practice
95. Support you want shooting practicing in football, where you may set up drills and alter the starting position and involvement of defenders. Which type of practice is BEST?
A. Fixed practice
B. Massed practiced
C. Fixed practice
D. Variable practice
96. Which type of practice is the best for difficult, dangerous or fatiguing skills?
A. Massed practice
B. Distributed practice
C. Fixed practice
D. Variable practice
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Which method of practice did you apply?
A. Progressive part method
B. Part method
C. Whole method
D. Whole-part-whole method
98. The skill is first demonstrate and then practiced from start to finish. It helps the learner to get a feel for the skill, timings and end product. Which practices method is is described?
A. Progressive part method
B. Part method
C. Whole method
D. Whole-part-whole method
99. Which is best used for fast skills which cannot easily be separated into sub-parts, such as a javelin throw?
A. Whole method
B. Part Method
C. Progressive part method
D. Whole-part-whole method
100. The parts of the skill are practiced in isolation which is useful for complicated and serial skills and is good for maintaining motivating and focusing on specific elements of the skill. Which practiced method is described?
A. Whole-part-whole method
B. Whole method
C. Progressive part method
D. Part method
101. K to Grade 3 children have difficulty in shooting a basketball through an upright hoop because of this vision-related factor? Which factor I referred to?
A. Figured-ground perception
B. Hand-and-eye coordination
C. Depth perception
D. Peripheral vision
102. Unlike adults and older children, children up to the age 17 are unable to understand coaching instructions, rules or strategies, or to contemplate doing two things at the same time. Which theory explains this?
A. Kolb’s learning style
B. Bandura’s social cognitive development ( self- efficacy )
C. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development ( preoperational stage of thinking )
D. Gardener’s theory of multiple intelligences ( bodily-kinesthetic intelligences )
103. Children aged up to 7 focus on dribbling the football only but do not consider the possibility of passing the ball to a teammate. This is illustration of .
A. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development ( preoperational stage of thinking )
B. Bandura’s social cognitive theory ( self-efficacy )
C. Kolb’s learning style
D. Gardener’s theory of multiple intelligence ( bodily – kinesthetic intelligence )
104. Which of the following BEST describes the main goal of Physical Education?
A. Improve the cognitive, affective ( socio- emotional ) and psychomotor capacities of students through physical activities
B. Teaching the knowledge, skills and values for students to live a healthy lifestyle now and in the future
C. Improve the physical fitness of all
students, regardless of individual differences in abilities and backgrounds
D. Promote physical fitness and health that complements the rest of the school curriculum
105. What is the most important factor that contributes to the decline of PE recently?
A. More subjects in the school curriculum and focus on academics leading to reduce time allocation in PE
B. Dominance of technology and prevalence of sedentariness ( inadequate physical activity ) leading to irrelevance of PE as a subject
C. Lack of professionalization in PE ( PE teachers are not specialist; poor quality of degree programs in PE )
D. Focus on sports that cater t athletes’ needs instead of the majority of students’ need to achieve and maintain fitness and health through sporting activities
106. Physical Education traces its origin in.
A. ancient Greek belief in ‘a sound mind in a sound body.
B. ancient Olympics Games
C. PE movement in Europe (end of Renaissance era
) that centered around gymnastics and calisthenics
D. military training and preparation of war.
107. In the attribution motivation theory ( Weiner ), teachers would most prefer their students .
A. be intrinsically motivated
B. ascribed their performance to their environment such as God’s help, others’ support, their competitors, the game officials, playing facilities and equipment
C. ascribe their performance outcomes to their own ability and effort
D. be extrinsically motivated
108. Physical literacy is the best described as a composite of .
A. health-related, skill-related and physiological fitness that enables students to perform a variety of physical activities
B. body management, locomotor and non- locomotor and object control or maintenance of good health
C. games, sports, rhythms and dance that leads to improved fitness and maintenance of good health
D. fundamental movement, motor- and activity- specific skills that equip students for an active lifestyle
109. Perseverance is most likely to be encourage by physical education activities that
A. are challenging, yet within the reach of students’ capabilities
B. allow students to experience both success and failure so they strive to do their best everytime
C. extremely challenge, requiring a high degree of skill
D. extremely easy in order to obtain many opportunities for positive feedback
110. After completing their personal fitness assessments, the teacher ask each students to write down an individual fitness goal and three possible ways achieves this. Which is the primary benefit of this activity?
A. It allows the student the opportunity to focus either on area of strength or weakness
B. It minimize student resistance to participate in efforts to improve fitness.
C. It gives the students student greater individual responsibility for his/her own learning and fitness.
D. It maintain the the privacy of each student in developing and pursuing fitness goals
111. With which educational philosophy does Physical Education meet strong opposition because of its emphasis on the basics and other academics subject?
A. Essentialism
B. Progressivism
C. Existentialism
D. Idealism
112. Comprehensive health education fosters student resilience through the coordinated teaching of health, family and consumer sciences and physical education. What does this imply?
A. For greater focus in-depth treatment of topics in health topics are discussed in Health.
B. The health of children is the primary and sole responsibility of parents.
C. Health education integrates, Health, Home Economics and Physical Education.
D. The child’s health is primarily his/her own making.
113. Comprehensive health education encompasses health education, physical education, and family and costumer sciences. What does the statement imply about then nature of health education in schools?
A. Inherently interdisciplinary
B. Consider minor subject only
C. Indispensable in the curriculum
D. Concern of Health Education teachers only
114. Does collaborative health education include foodservice at the school canteen?
A. Definitely yes.
B. Definitely no.
C. Maybe
D. No. The curriculum has nothing to do with food service.
Read the following then answer 15 and 16.
115. What does this prove?
I. Health can be taught and learned in many different class rooms and discipline
II. An effective health education is collaborative in approach.
III. An effective heath education is integrative in approach.
A. I, II and III
B. I only
C. I and II
D. II and III
116. Which principles of teaching is illustrated in the Health Education described above?
I. Effective teaching is integrative
II. Learning by doing
III. Learning is inquiry-based
A. I and II
B. II only
C. I only
D. I, II and III
117. Student concerns, interest, views, and ideas are central to active learning and to the classroom assessment of the comprehensive health education. This principle states that an effective health education is .
A. collaborative
B. multiple Intelligence-Based
C. responsive and relevant
D. interactive
118. Scare stories and blanket admonitions about responsibility are insufficient t help students to assess risk rationally or make health-enhancing decisions. What does this imply about health education?
A. Teach student to inquire reason, and solve problem
B. Make students memorize health tips
C. Follow up children’s eating habit at home.
D. Inspect packed lunch to ensures that children eat health food.
119. Teacher A makes it a point to give the song its historical background before teaching it to the class. On which principle of the music education is her practice based?
A. Music is an opportunity to each moral and spiritual values.
B. Music is an opportunity for self-expression through a group activity
C. Music offers .an opportunity for understanding other people and their cultures
D. Music is a means to teach the duties of citizenship.
120. It is said that when Filipinos abroad sing “Bayan ko” the feeling to come home and serve the country is heightened. What does this tell about music?
A. Music is an opportunity for self-expression.
B. Music adds flavor to socials.
C. Music has a socializing function.
D. Patriotism and nationalism can be effectively taught through music.
121. Which of the following method is the best way to assess your environmental health risks?
A. Use of health diary and self-tests and monitoring of your surroundings
B. Self-assessment and analysis of emerging health risks
C. Pinpointing t09he problem places and times of day behavior and your environment could effect your health adversely
D. Intelligent choice and modification both in your behavior and your surroundings to eliminate potential health problems
122. Excessive radiation has delayed effects on the human body. Which of the following effects is the result of radiation.
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Acid rain
C. Water Pollution
D. Air pollution
123. Which of the following environmental problems is most lethal to people worldwide?
A. Ozone layer
B. Acid rain
C. Water pollution
D. Air pollution
124. After drinking juice, in which garbage bin must you throw the tetra pack container?
A. Compostable
B. Recyclables
C. Biodegradables
D. Non-biodegradable
125. Which of the following is a mosquito-borne disease
I. Dengue
II. Malaria
III. Yellow fever
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III
126. The 4 common air pollutants according to WHO are the following EXCEPT?
A. Ozone
B. Nitrogen
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Nitrous dioxide
127. A sound is considered noise and can cause hearing problems if it measures more than decibels:
A. 80
B. 85
C. 90
D. 95
128. Which is NOT TRUE about global warming:
A. More floods can happen.
B. Sustainability of water resources will be compromised.
C. Some insect-borne disease are likely to increase .
D. Carbon dioxide emitted by cars and factories traps the sun’s light.
129. Which of the following actions protects the environment?
I. Regularly spraying mosquito breeding place with seconds
II. Using a water hose to clean your car
III. Burning dry leaves to lessen garbage in landfills
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II, and III
130. What can a first aider do to help a victim in severe external bleeding?
A. Cover the victim with blanket.
B. Give the victim some water.
C. Apply direct pressure over the wound with your fingers or palm.
D. Provide some medication
131. When an adult victim is unconscious, when should first aider be called?
A. After the ABC principle
B. After resuscitation
C. After opening the air way
D. As soon as the victim of heart attack?
132. What can a rescuer do to help a victim of heart attack?
A. Lay the casualty down, and raise and support her legs
B. Make the victim as comfortable as possible to ease the strain of his heart.
C. Keep calm and reassure the victim.
D. Give oxygen if it is available
133. The scene suggest that the victim has suffered poisoning. The first thing to do is .
A. call a physician
B. check and, if necessary, clear the casualty’s airway
C. place the casualty in the recovery the recovery position.
D. Give oxygen if it is available
134. An athletic student has just vomited and now appears to be coughing up blood. He is now having cold, clammy skin and a rapid, weal pulse. What is most likely wrong?
A. He is having spinal injury
B. He is having mild stroke
C. He has having internal bleeding
D. He has head injury
135. You are caring for a victim with minor burns. Blister that form should never break as they
.
A. aggravate the pain and swelling
B. damage nerves and fat tissues
C. interfere infection into the wound
D. introduce infection into the wound
136. For a child who is unconsciously choking, you would .
A. perform CPR
B. tilt the head back to open the airway
C. do Heimlick maneuver
D. encourage him to cough to help dislodge the obstruction
137. A student is having a tonic-clonic seizure. What should you do as a first-responder?
A. Restrain the student.
B. Put something between his teeth so that he will not bite his tongue
C. Loosen tight clothing, i.e., a necktie
D. Palace him under the shade.
138. Your brother accidentally cut himself in the foot with a rusty blade. What is the first thing to do?
A. Apply ice to prevent swelling
B. Request for tetanus vaccine in the nearest clinic
C. Wash the wound thoroughly with soap and water
D. Apply pressure to stop the bleeding
139. The following should be performed to a person who figured in a motorcycle accident EXCEPT?
A. Asses the airway by titling the head up and feeling the flow of air out of his mouth or nose
B. Control bleeding
C. Observe the chest for spontaneous breathing
D. Call an ambulance
140. What is the most important strategy to deal with drowning?
A. Mandatory CPR training for all lifeguards
B. Provision of complete emergency kits and equipments in all swimming facilities
C. Educating healthcare providers and legislator about risk and circumstances of drowning
D. Designing safe pool environment and use of isolation fencing to prevent kids wandering into the adult pools
141. When would you not advise HIV testing
I. Previous history of sexually transmitted disease?
II. Had male to male sexual intercourse
III. Had intercourse with a sex trade worker
IV. I would advice HIV testing of all of the above situation
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III
142. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding breastfeeding ?
A. Exclusive breastfeeding can provide adequate nutrition for infants less than 1 months.
B. 7-12month-old babies need complimentary feeding on top of breast milk to meet their nutrition needs.
C. If the mother is not producing milk of the baby’s birth, supplemental formula feeding should be given immediately to avoid undernutrition.
D. Lactation prevents the onset of menstruation in the mother thereby contributing to natural family planning.
143. What is the best treatment option you can advise for a child who is having diarrhea?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antidiarrheal medication
C. Gatorade
D. Oral rehydration solution
144. If you are to interview a 14 year-old female which of the following questions should you ask to determine her overall health?
I. Do you have a boyfriend? Are you sexually
active?
II. Have you ever thought of or tried killing yourself?
III. Do you smoke and/or drink alcoholic beverages?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III ony
D. I, II and III
145. The following are TRUE regarding child abuse EXCEPT?
A. neglect children constitutes child abuse according to R.A 7610
B. children with chronic medical illness are at risk of being abused
C. failure to gain weight can be a sign of child abuse
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II, and III
146. Which is true about tuberculosis?
A. It is hereditary
B. Using a TB patient’s utensils will make you sick.
C. 1 month of treatment is needed to cure the disease.
D. After 2 weeks of medication the patient is no longer infections.
147. Newborns in Dr. Jose Fabella Memorial Hospital are wrapped against their mother’s chest in a direct skin-to-skin contact. Which is LEAST TRUE about this so-called Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)?
A. This hospital lacks enough linen, warmers beds to provide for all those newborns
B. This method promote breastfeeding and early discharge from the hospital
C. The father can take the mother ‘s role in the kangaroo care
D. Premature babies can benefit from KMC even without putting him in an incubator
148. The blood vessel that supplies nutrient to the brain is the .
A. jugular version
B. aorta
C. carotid artery
D. superior mesenteric artery
149. Which substance when abused leads to hearing loss, peripheral neuropathies, brain damage?
A. Marijuana
B. Cocaine
C. Methamphetamine
D. Rubber-based contact cement (“rugby”)
150. Flexion of the knees and extension of the hips are functions of which muscles?
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Hamstring
C. Quadriceps
D. Gastrocnemius
151. Which is NOT true of chicken pox?
A. Touching the fluids of chicken pox blisters can get you the disease
B. Inhalation of airborne droplets from a patient with chicken pox can get you the disease
C. When the blisters start crusting the patient is no longer contagious.
D. Even after the resolution of the disease the virus remains inactive in certain nerves of our body.
152. The abuse of this substance is notorious for destroying for destroying the nasal septum leading to nasal bleeding, loss of sense of smell, chronically runny nose, hoarseness, etc. Which substance is referred to?
A. Heroin
B. Marijuana
C. Cocaine
D. Rubber-based contact cement (“rugby”)
153. Who among the following has the least risk of having a heart attack?
A. A 47-year-old female
B. A 46-years-old male
C. A female with a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 30
D. A male with a high LDL cholesterol
154. A person with bloodshot eyes, paranoia, rapid heartbeat, constant cough could be
abusing .
A. heroin
B. marijuana
C. methamphetamine
D. LSD
155. A depressive person tried committing suicide by slashing her wrist; which major artery is commonly cut in such a situation?
A. Radial artery
B. Ulnar artery
C. Carpal artery
D. Median artery
156. In the Philippines, 13 mothers die everyday due to pregnancy-related complications. What is the major cause of maternal mortality:
A. Post-partum hemorrhage
B. Infection
C. Undernourishment
D. Abortion
157. TRUE regarding rabies post-exposure prophylaxis?
A. Infants and pregnancy women should never be given rabies vaccine
B. Babies born to rabid mothers become naturally
immune to rabies.
C. If you get bitten by a pig you need anti-rabies vaccine.
D. No vaccine is needed if your neighbor’s dog caused a minor scratch in your leg.
158. Which is NOT TRUE regarding the Ebola virus disease:
I. The virus is transmitted to people from wild animals
II. Up to 90% of infected individuals die of the disease
III. Reston ebolavirus, a species of the genus ebolavirus, can be found in the Philippines
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II, and III
159. A supply of clean air to breath is very important for good health. But air pollutants are everywhere. Which of the following techniques will most likely minimize your exposure to air pollutants?
A. Proper location of dump sites.
B. Don’t cook on a charcoal barbecue in an enclosed space.
C. Protect yourself from medical radiation.
D. Do not use a microwave over if the door does not close properly.
160. The presence of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere is important because it .
A. reduces the amount of acid rain and urban song
B. enhance the greenhouse effect
C. has led to sharp increases in all types skip cancer
D. absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation
161. High caloric needs sleep requirements of adolescents are directly related to which of the following?
A. Elevated level of testosterone or estrogen in the body
B. High rates of metabolic activity associated with growth and development
C. increased level of physical activity beyond childhood
D. increased in stress due to the competing demands of school, family and peer group
162. Which of the following method would be most appropriate for students to develop refusal skills?
A. Have the students role –play various refusal skills
B. Have students hold lengthy discussion on how to stand up to peer pressure
C. Lecture about the concepts of refusal skills
D. Have the students collect and bring in magazines to create college
163. if you believe that one of your students has a drug problem, which should you do to address the situation?”
A. Report the situation to the principal
B. Obtain information about student behavior
C. Take with an experienced counselor about setting up intervention
D. Offer your support during treatment
164. Rudy’s habit is gotten out of control. His habit has a negative impact on his health. His characteristic include craving, loss control, and escalation. Rudy’s behaviors indicate .
A. intoxication
B. addiction
C. dependence
d. Abuse
165. According to the chain of infection model, the use of disposable spoon and fork in food chain control the spread of communicable disease primarily by interfering with .
A. size of the human reservoir available has its host to the pathogen
B. production of large numbers of the pathogen in a host
C. establishment of the disease in a new host
D. portal of entry of the pathogen into new host
166. A family consist of a mother with two children and a father with three children. Each child is biologically related to only one of the adults in the family. Which of the following best describes this family structure?
A. A single –parent family
B. A Blended family
C. An extended family
D. An adoptive family
167. A college student who is waiting for her turn to present an oral report discovers that her heart is pounding and her palms are sweaty. This condition is .
A. nervousness
B. heart attack
C. stress
D. shock
168. Pregnancy is most reliably confirmed by .
A. monitoring changes in daily body temperature
B. the absence of two or more periods
C. having a doctor test for HCG in the blood
D. a positive result on a home pregnancy test
169. Fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with which of the following?/
A. Hepatitis
B. Development disabilities
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Leukemia
170. John is experiencing stress in the school that may bring on asthma attack, As a Health teacher the best way to respond is .
A. call a doctor immediately
B. apply inhale and exhale technique
C. provide medication
D. allow the student to relax
171. Joe is being selected as a class officer in his school and being an officer he has so many responsibilities to do. Although anxiety is produced, it helps him become more effective in physical, social, and physiological functioning. What is Joe is experiencing?
A. Distress
B. Anxiety
C. Eustress
D. Depression
172. As a health teacher, what is the best way to deal with students’ distress? Teacher should .
A. helps the students mentally classify events as they arise and to decide which situation can be personally handled
B. help them learn to accept responsibility for their own behavior
C. teach the students to be optimistic
D. encourage students to reward themselves periodically with emotional or material favors
173. HIV may be transmitted form one individual to another in all of the following ways EXCEPT .
A. perinatally from infected mother to her focus
B. through contact made during oral sex
C. through breastmilk from an infected mother and fed to an infant
D. genetically from parent to child
174. Jenny is 6-months pregnant, During her pregnancy she experienced some specific illness such as preeclampsia, pregnancy-induced diabetes and infection. This condition is due to the result of
.
A. lack of physical activity and exercise
B. lack of prenatal care
C. disturbed emotional well-being
D. lack of proper nutrition
175. Adolescents with type-1 diabetes can best manage their disease by .
A. avoiding all non-essential physical activity
B. eating frequent meals and sugary snacks
C. a rigorous exercise regimen
D. frequent monitoring of blood sugar and the administration of insulin
176. Strep throat is commonly found in the school setting. Which is the best way to prevent the spread of disease?
A. Tell the students see a doctor.
B. Student with sore throat should be excluded from school until fever and soar throat are gone for twenty-four to forty eight hours.,
C. Allow the students to drink plenty of fluids
D. Complete bed rest and good condition
177. Which of the following statements should a teacher keep in mind about a child having sickle cell anemia in the classroom?
A. Provide some activity such as games, handicrafts, and music in which the child can excel to gain acceptance with the peer group.
B. Do not allow the students to participate in physical exercises and other strenuous activity
C. Teacher should be aware of the emotional and social need of the student.
D. Let the student understand his condition
178. Which of the following is not a statute of Republic Act 9288 OR Newborn Screening (NBS) act of 2004:
A. Every baby born iin the Philippines must undergo NBS
B. A sustainable NBS system within the public health delivery system must be established
C. All health practitioners must be aware of NBS
179. The expand Program on immunization (EPI) ensures that infants, children and mothers have access to routinely recommended vaccine. Which of the following vaccines is NOT included in the EPI:
A. Yubercolosis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Diptheria
D. Cholera
180. A couple wants a long-term but not permanent family planning method. What would you recommended:
A. Intrauterine
B. Vasectomy
C. Bilateral tubal ligation
D. Injectable contraceptives
181. The most positive way health teacher can help students see the importance of personal health care
as a desirable choice is to increase their awareness of .
A. The negative consequences of not practicing good habits
B. Ways to take care of their senses
C. The enormous responsibility of parents
D. how personal health care promote overall wellness
182. Which of the following statements is the best strategy for teacher to explain how proper care of the body can influence growth and development?
A. Prepare a handout that that list each body system and three health practices that affect it.
B. Divide the class into six groups, each representing a different body system with the exception of the reproductive system.
C. Provide students with poster board, and ask the students to make a collage of people with diverse body types and habits that may influence body functioning.
D. Provide students with handouts containing incomplete statements.
183. Pimples, white heads, blackheads, and acne are the results of .
A. germs found in the layer of the epidermis
B. overly active secretion of oil glands in the body
C. overexposure to the sun
D. fungal infection
184. The best thing to do for a child with hearing loss is to .
A. speak very loudly
B. detect the condition early and get medical attention
C. look directly to the child
D. administer hearing test
185. Students spend much time during school day sitting at the desk. Which of the following statements will promote good posture upon sitting?
A. The tray of the desk should not be slanted
B. Slightly bend backward the back the chair
C. The seat of the desk should not be higher than the hips
D. Desk should be appropriate in height to allow both feet to touch the floor
186. Children who continually pull on their ears or seem to have NO balance and equilibrium should be referred to an .
A. otologist
B. ophalmologist
C. dermatologist
D. orthodontist
187. Teaching students how to soak his her hands or feet in warm water for atleast 5 minutes is very important because soaking .
A. soaking helps remove bacteria
B. softens their skins
C. softens the nail and make them easier to trim
D. relax both his hands or feet
188. The use of cucumber in your eyelids before going to sleep at night will help
.
A. pupils dilate
B. enhance sleeping habits
C. prevent puffiness
D. prevent eye damage
189. If a person has a seizure while bathing, which of the following procedures should come first?
A. Follow the first aid steps for a seizure.
B. Start the water draining from the tub.
C. Call other staff for assistance.
D. Immediately protect and support the head.
190. Ears are special part of our body and like any other organs, we should take care good of them. Which of the following is the safest way to clean your ears?
A. Use cotton swabs.
B. Clean your ears once a week.
C. Be gentle in cleaning your ears.
D. Clean your ears with wash clothes using your finger
191. A person who able to see more than one side of an issue and exhibits good time-management skill is said to possess wellness
A. occupational
B. social
C. intellectual
D. emotional
192. What healthy alternative can one do avoid smoking?
A. Hangout with smoking groups
B. Try one puff to be part of the group
C. Join sports club and organizations
D. Be friendly to smokers
193. If your skin is oily then youi are prone to pimples, blackheads and white heads. The best way to treat oily skin is .
A. to wash your face twice a day with a gentle non- foaming cleanser and warm water.
B. to use toner to help with that tight and flaky feeling
C. not to use moisturizer
D. to exfoliate
194. A neighbor complains that his children often have diarrhea. What is the best advise you can give him?
A. Clean the house regularly with disinfectants.
B. Do not give the children food bought from street vendors.
C. Tell the children to wash their hands properly and regularly.
D. Throw the garbage in the proper bins immediately
195. The “ossicles” are found in .
A. Throat
B. ear
C. vertebral column
D. ankle
196. Which is TRUE od tinea flava?
A. Tincture of iodine
B. Kind of intestinal parasite
C. Loss of taste
D. A fungal skin infection
197. Which eye defect is most common associated with anging?
A. Myopia
B. Presbyopia
C. Astigmatism
D. Conjunctivitis
198. Green leafy vegetables belong to which group?
A. Go foods
B. Grow foods
C. Glow foods
D. Body-building foods
199. Which among the following has the highest dietary fiber content?
A. 1 cup of cooked sweet corn
B. 1 medium-sized raw carrot
C. 1 medium-sized banana
D. 1 cup of lentils (“patani”)
200. Which is the best way to manage diabetes? Help the patient by .
A. motivating him/her to look for experimental options
B. recognize his/her situation as one shared by many of his/her peers
C. allowing him/her to anticipate the dietary effects and exercise choices of his/her health
201. In basketball, which one of the following is NOT allowed?
A. A player, while still dribbling, puts two hands on the ball at the same time.
B. A player receives the ball, fake pass, then dribbles forward.
C. A player dribbles with the right hand, then with the left.
D. A player moves forward dribbling, comes to halt, continues dribbling, then moves dribbling.
202. The following are the team composition of football game, except one. Which one is it?
A. Goal keeper
B. Right Fullback
C. Forwards
D. Right Feilder
203. In basketball, after a field score is scored, the ball is put back to play by throwing it back from the
.
A. sideline
B. centering
C. endline
D. corner
204. Which is continuous tapping of the ball with your hands or palm towards the floor with full control and follow though?
A. Passing
B. Dribbling
C. Spiking
D. Stopping
205. Which foul is committed by a player which involves contact with an opponents?
A. Personal Foul
B. International Foul
C. Double Foul
D. Technical foul
206. In basketball game, how long can a player be on his opponent’s restricted area when his team has a possession of ball without being penalized?
A. Three Seconds
B. Five Seconds
C. Thirty Seconds
D. Ten Seconds
207. Which of the following is against the rules?
A. A player bounces ball to another player.
B. A player takes the ball from the hands of an opposing player.
C. A player dribbling towards goal knocks over an opponents who has is in path.
D. A player rolls the ball along the ground.
208. How many steps is player permitted to take between bounces in a dribble?
A. Two
B. As many as s/he wish
C. One
D. Five
209. When a penalty shot is taken, when are the players to move into the restraining area?
A. Whenever they like
B. When the thrower has been given the ball
C. When the ball leaves the thrower’s hand
D. When the thrower hits the backboard or basket
210. The space over the home plate, between the batter’s armpits and the tip of his knees is called
.
A. strike zone
B. penalty zone
C. foul zone
D. foul ball
211. What is the official name of the governing body for gymnastics worldwide?
a. Internationale Federation de Gymnastique
b. Federation Internationale de Gymnastique
c. Gymnastique Federation Internationale
d. None of the above
212. For better execution of an inverted stand, the center of weight must be the center of support.
a. positioned under
b. positioned over
c. positioned behind
d. of the same level as
213. Which gymnastic position is often used to complete a back extension and cartwheel? The weight is supported on one leg while the other leg is extended at the rear. The extended leg is kept straight with the toe pointed and the chest is kept erect.
a. Lunge
b. Pli or Plie
c. Arabesque
d. Relev or Releve
214. In the Filipino Pyramid Guide, gymnastics particularly sports aerobics, can be classified as moderate to vigorous activity. How often should and individual engage in this type of activity to achieve the desired level of fitness.
a. 30 minutes, three to five times a week
b. 35 minutes everyday
c. 50 minutes a day, three to five times a week
d. 120 minutes three times a day
215. Which movements include all movements that the body is able to execute while the feet remain stationary?
a. Locomotion Movements
b. Non Locomotion Movements
c. Locomotor Movements
d. Non Locomotor Movements
216. Lapay Bantique is a mimetic dance. The dance originates from the seagull movements as they are imitated by the native women of Masbate while waiting for the fishermen to arrive. The seagull's movements are characterized by the following except for the .
a. swoops
b. glides
c. skips
d. dives
217. Why is folk dancing considered a wholesome form of entertainment?
a. It can be performed both by children and adults.
b. It is simple and inexpensive recreation.
c. It is performed while singing.
d. It depicts the culture and traditions of the people
218. Which was originally an all - male dance performance or Abra presenting mock fight between Ilocano Christians and Non - Christians using sticks.
a. Sakuting
b. Subli
c. Pamulinnawen
d. La Jota de Paoayena
219. What do the circular movements in the Bendian, dance of the Ibalois symbolize?
a. Unity and harmony among the Ibalois
b. Affinity and nature
c. Victory over enemy
d. Endless life
220. Which dance basically shows off balancing skill of the performers? Glasses filled with rice wine are placed on the head and on each hand carefully maneuvered with graceful movements
a. Pandanggo sa Ilaw
b. Subli
c. Rigodon
d. Binasuan
221. Which dance requires balancing skill to maintain the stability of oil lamps, placed on head and at the back of each hand?
a. Binasuan
b. Subli
c. Rigodon
d. Pandanggo sa Ilaw
222. Which is dance, commonly performed in moderate waltz style during festivals in Bohol and other Visayan towns, portrays a young playful couple's attempt to get each other's attention.
a. Kuratsa
b. La Jota Moncadena
c. Rigodon
d. Pandanggo sa Ilaw
223. Which dance from leyte Province is a mimic movement of "tikling birds" hopping over trees, grass stems or over bamboo traps set by farmers? Dancers perform this dance with remarkable grace and speed jumping between bamboo poles.
a. Tinikling
b. La Jota Moncadena
c. Kuratsa
d. Rigodon
224. This was originally performed in Binan, Laguna as a mock - war dance that demonstrates a fight between the Moros and the Christians over the prized latik or coconut meat during the spanish rule.
a. La Jota Manilena
b. Sakuting
c. Pantomina
d. Maglalatik
225. Which is TRUE of the dance, Maglalatik?
I. It has a four - part performance such as the palipasan and the baligtaran showing the intense battle, the paseo and the escaramusa - the reconciliation.
II. Moro dancers wear read trousers while the Christian dancers show up in blue
III. Dancers are male and female with harnesses of coconut shells attached on their chests, back, thighs and hips
a. I and II
b. I only
c. I and III
d. I, II and III
226. Which dance is performed in flirtation manner with fans and handkerchiefs to assist the dancers' hide - and - seek movements. It means affectionate and lovable woman.
a. Carinosa
b. Sakuting
c. Kuratsa
d. Pantomina
227. It is courtship dance which imitates the courtship and lovemaking of dove shown in the dance when the men attempt to please the woman.
a. Carinosa
b. Sakuting
c. Kuratsa
d. Pantomina
228. When a serving team commits a violation, it is a
.
a. sideout and the other team gains the serve
b. point for the serving team
c. change of court
d. point for the opposing team
229. Player number 3 delivered an ace serve. What did the player earn?
a. A point
b. An award
c. A voilation
d. A ser
230. When the player on the back row jumps to spike the ball, he/she may .
a. spike from any position
b. spike the ball form the back row and never cross the attack line
c. spike the ball as long as he/she takes off in front of the attack line
d. spike the ball as long as he/she takes off from behind the attack line.
231. Goal setting is a mechanism that helps one to understand his/her potential and to feel satisfied with its results. Thus, in goal - setting to enhance personal fitness, the first step is to assess current level of .
a. motivation
b. fitness
c. readiness
d. current level of understanding
232. What will happen to muscles when exposed to more stress such as resistance training?
a. Muscles get weaker and increase in size.
b. Muscles get weaker and decrease in size.
c. Muscles get stronger and increase in size.
d. Muscles get stronger and decrease in size.
233. Which among the functions of the skeletal system is responsible for improved performance?
a. Skeleton provides framework and shape to the body.
b. Skeleton protects the internal organs of the body.
c. Bone marrow produces red blood cells and platelets
d. Skeleton acts as lever.
234. How do muscles work to produce movement?
a. Pair of muscles acts in opposite directions.
b. Pair of muscles acts towards the same direction.
c. Pair of muscles pulls each other.
d. Pair of muscles pushes each other.
235. In Sepak Takraw, which muscle group is responsible when hitting the ball using the thigh?
a. Hamstrings
b. Triceps
c. Quadriceps
d. Gluteus maximus
236. Which of the following statements does NOT describe the benefit of physical activity?
a. Reduced risk of heart attack and blood pressure
b. Good sense of body image
c. Good chance of winning in a sport competition
d. Meeting new friends
237. Goal setting is a mechanism that helps one to understand his/her potential and to feel satisfied with its results. Thus, in goal - setting to enhance personal fitness, the first step is to assess current level of .
a. motivation
b. fitness
c. readiness to affect change
d. current level of understanding about fitness
238. If you want to determine your fitness program parameters which should you do first?
a. Get a physical examination to identify any physical limitations
b. Construct your fitness plan
c. Commit yourself to your fitness plan
d. Figure out how much time you can have for work outs.
239. If you want to have a personalized fitness training program, which should you do first?
a. Determine your fitness program parameters
b. Select specific physical activities for your fitness program
c. Record your Fitness Training Plan
d. Evaluate your faithfulness to your fitness program
240. How much time should you devote to work outs?
a. Depends on your fitness goals and current level of physical fitness
b. About 150 minutes total of physical activity per week
c. About 200 minutes total of physical activity per
week
d. Depends on your age
241. Should you include dietary changes in your personal fitness plan?
a. Yes, no more salty foods.
b. Yes, no more meat
c. Depends on your fitness goals
d. No, the work out will overcome effect of poor diet.
242. Why is it necessary to established your specific goals for personal fitness? Because your goals determine the .
I. types of exercise you should build into your plan
II. amount of time you will need to exercise
III. significant dietary changes, if necessary
a. II and III
b. I and II
c. I only
d. I, II, and III
243. For strength training which are convenient tools?
I. Weight machine
II. Dumbbells
III. Exercise balls
IV. Resistance bands
a. I, II and III and IV
b. I, II and III
c. II and III
d. I and II
244. Which are strength routines that do not require equipment?
I. Push - ups
II. Yoga
III. Dumbbells
IV. Dance workout with video
a. I and II
b. I, II, III and IV
c. I only
d. II and IV
245. Which is NOT part of cardio routines?
a. Jogging
b. Weight machines
c. Jump rope
d. Dance workout videos
246. Which type of gymnastics event combines gymnastics, dance, ballet and apparatus manipulation?
a. Men's Artistic Gymnastics
b. Rhythmic Gymnastics
c. Women Artistic Gymnatics
d. None of the above
247. In gymnastics, safety is of primary concern. What should a performer do when he/she loses balance in a stunt?
a. Land with bended knees
b. Land on both feet
c. Stand straight
d. Roll out
248. Spotting has a twofold purpose. First is the performer's safety and prevention of injury and second, is the guiding of performer to help develop body awareness. Which among the roles of a spotter is the most difficult to perform?
a. To prevent a hazardous fall
b. To help develop self confidence
c. To help support the body weight
d. To assist performer carry out the stunts
249. In a spike position, the body is fully bent forward at the hips while legs are kept straight. Pike can be performed in three positions. What are they?
1. Walking Position
2. Lying Position
3. Sitting Position
4. Standing Position
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
250. What contribution of Friedrich Ludwig Jahn of Germany made him the "father of modern gymnastics"?
a. He develop the bars (side, horizontal and parallel), balance beam and jumping events.
b. He included physical exercises with other forms of instruction
c. He develop a more graceful form of the sport.
d. He invented more than 30 pieces of apparatus.
251. Which is/are a general rule/s for safety when swimming in the beach?
I. Warm up before you swim.
II. Stay out of water during thunderstorm.
III. It is more exciting to swim during a thunderstorm.
A. I, II and III
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I only
252. Which is rule for safety when swimming in the beach?
A. Don’t rely on swimming aids.
B. Swim immediately after a meal.
C. Do not jump from a beach raft or dive underneath.
D. Swim in the dark.
253. What does this mean?
A. Swim at your own risk.
B. Don’t feed the sharks.
C. There is report of sharks in the activity.
D. Should you spots sharks in the area, call 111.
254. Which are safety advice on how to avoid shark?
I. Do not swim at dawn, at dusk or at night.
II. Do not swim if you are bleeding or have any open wound.
III. If schooling fish start to behave erratically or start to congregate in unusually large numbers, leave the water.
IV. If a large fish is sighted in the area, leave the water as quickly and quickly and calmly as possible.
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I and II
D. II and III and IV
255. Arrange the steps in mouth-to-mouth resuscitation.
I. Check the pulse for signs of life
II. Begin mouth-to-mouth resuscitation on land, if possible, o in the water if injured persons needs immediate life-and-death measures.
III. Strongly breathe four times into the mouth of the injured persons as you pinch his or her nose. This helps air get past any water that is clogging the breathing passageways and the lungs.
IV. Turn the drowning person’s head to the side, allowing any water to drain from his or her mouth or nose. Turn the head back to the center.
V. After four strong breaths, put your ear near the mouth and watch the chest for any breathing movement.
A. 4-2-3-5-6-1
B. 2-3-4-6-5-1
C. 1-2-3-4-5-6
D. 4-2-3-5-1-6
256. Which is executed by moving the hand from the wrist either clockwise or counter clockwise?
A. Kulintang
B. Kumintang
C. Cross arm
D. Outside Hand
257. With the weight of the body on one foot, hit the floor with the ball of the other foot after which the lift foot from the floor. This is a dance term called step.
A. close
B. brush
C. touch
D. slide
258. Which is done when one crosses the right foot or left foot in front of the left ( R ), bends the body slightly forward and crosses the hands down in front with the right ( L ) hand over the left ( R )?
A. Saludo
B. Sarok
C. Arms in lateral position
D. Set
259. Which one referred to when one places the foot in a certain desired position without putting weight on it and make the sole of the foot rest flat on the floor?
A. Point
B. Place
C. Saludo
D. Set
260. What position sis described when arms are at side, horizontal, elbows bent at the right angle, forearms parallel to the head and palms facing inward?
A. Arms in T position
B. Arms in reverse T position
C. Arms in lateral Position
D. Arms in oblique upward position
261. Whose is known as the “Mother, Dean and Champion of Philippine folk Dance”?
A. Francisca Reyes Aquino
B. Tessy Alfonso
C. Fabia de la Rosa
D. Fely Franquelli
262. Which dance is based on music played at bullfight during the bullfight’ entrance (paseo) or during the passes (faena) just before the kill?
A. Rumba
B. Pasadoble
C. Salsa
D. Samba
263. This is consist of the basic movement of stepping forward or backward and shifting weight between feet, then additional quick set of these steps. Which is described.
A. Cha cha cha
B. Salsa
C. Rumba
D. Pasadoble
264. Which dance is consist of two quick steps and then a third slower step that takes two beats
to execute? Dancers use a box-like pattern to their movements.
A. Cha cha cha
B. Salsa
C. Rumba
D. Pasadoble
265. This dance originated ii the Caribbean, although it also has a strong African influence. Couples typically perform this dance together and it centers on a four-beat combination of two quick steps and a slow step with a pause or tap. Which dance is described?
A. Cha cha cha
B. Salsa
C. Rumba
D. Pasadoble
266. Which is one of the most well known Latin dances especially for it's role Carnival events, where individually dancers perform? Some of which are for dancing couple and others of which are dancers for individuals.
A. Cha cha cha
B. Samba
C. Rumba
D. Pasadoble
267. Which is a lively dance patterend after the drama of the Spanish bullfight?
A. Cha cha cha
B. Salsa
C. Rumba
D. Pasadoble
268. Which track event is won by the athlete with the fastest time?
A. Jumping Event
B. Throwing Event
C. Running Events
D. Combined Event
269. Which field event is won by the athlete who has achieved the greatest height in the contestant?
A. Jumping Event
B. Throwing Event
C. Running Event
D. Combined Event
270. In which track event do teams of athletes run and pass on a baton to their team member?
A. Hurdles
B. Relay
C. Pole vault
D. Long jump
271. Which is the most important throws ii outfield?
A. Overwarm
B. Sidearm
C. Underarm
D. Pitch
272. Which of the following players usually covers home plate when the catcher leaves it to the field ball?
A. Left fielder
B. Short stop
C. Right fielder
D. Pitcher
273. Which player usually cover home plate when the catcher leaves it to field ball?
A. The pitcher
B. 1st baseman
C. 3rd baseman
D. short stop
274. A ball that is not swung at, but which is purposely tapped slowly into the infield is called
A. strike
B. a ball
C. a foul
D. a bunt
275. What is the most important in batting?
A. To keep eyes on the ball
B. To swing hard
C. To swing bat on a level plane
D. Two swing only a good pitches
276. To which base is a runner always forced?
A. Home base
B. 2nd Base
C. 1st Base
D. 3rd Base
277. In which of the following cases is the batter “out”?
A. The call against the batter is strike 2 and he hits and misses the next ball which is caught by the catcher
B. The call against the batter strike 1 and he tips the next ball which goes straight to the catcher at shoulder height and he holds the ball.
C. There is no runner on base 1 and when the ball is hit, a runner on base 2 runs to base 3 where he arrives after the ball has received by third baseman who does not tag him.
D. The call against the batter is ball 3, Strike 2 ad hits the next ball into the infield and rolls onto foul territory between home and first base
278. When does a batter receive a free base or “walk”?
A. After 3 strikes
B. After 4 balls
C. After hitting two fouls
D. When he hits an infield fly
279. Before pitching, a pitcher must .
A. have both feet on the plate
B. have one foot touching the plate
C. hold the ball in front in one hand
D. have both feet together on the plate
280. Which of the following would be called “ball”?
A. The ball passes over the home plate level with the batter’s waist.
B. The ball is struck at by the at by the batter and missed.
C. The ball passes over the home plate level with the batter’s knee.
D. The ball passes over the home plate level with the batter’s armpit
281. What is the formula used to determine the number of games for single elimination ?
A. G=N-1
B. G=2(N-1)
C. G=2 (1-N)
282. How many byers are there in tournament with nine (9) participating teams using single elimination?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0
283. Which is TRUE of the deep catch stroke?
I. More effective than the sculling stroke?
II. Has the deep catch freestyle stroke
III. The arm action resembles that of the paddle
A. I, II and III
B. II only
C. I only
D. II and III
284. Which is TRUE of sculling stroke?
I. Has bent-arm, propeller-inspired motion
II. The arm action resembles that of paddle
III. More efficient and effective than the deep catch stroke
A. I only
B. II only
C. I only
D. II and III
285. Which characterize/s an effective swimming stroke?
I. Should create the least possible water resistance
II. There should be a minimum of splashing
III. Forward motion is smooth and not jerky.
A. I, II and II
B. I only
C. I and II
D. II and III
286. Which do/es NOT characterize butterfly swimming stroke?
I. The body is in a supine position.
II. The body is in a prone position.
III. Involves the dolphin kick with a wind a windmill-like movement of both arms in unison.
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II
D. I, II and III
287. When a swimming competitively, what should a swimmer do?
I. Must not swim underwater
II. The only time a swimmer can swim underwater is the first stroke after the start and each turn.
III. Use deep catch stroke
A. I, II and III
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I only
288. Which characterize breast stroke?
I. The body is I a prone position.
II. Involves frog kicking alternates with simultaneous movement of the arms from a point I the front of the head t shoulder level.
III. When swimming competitively, the swimmer’s head must be kept above the surface of the water at all times.
A. I. II and III
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I only
289. Which is swimming that uses any stroke?
A. Freestyle
B. Breast Stroke
C. Dog paddle
D. Back stroke
290. Which is NOT TRUE of backstroke?
A. Done in a prone position
B. Done in a supine position
C. Involve alternative over-the-head arm stroke and a flutter kick dog paddle
D. Freestyle
291. When a Player commits a flagrant foul, the referee’s decision is to .
A. award a point to the opposing team
B. call the attention of the coach
C. eject the player from the game
D. continue game
292. In 2003, NBA made a new rule as regards the stay of players inside the painted area. Who should get out of the painted area every three seconds?
A. Offensive players
B. Defensive players
C. Both offensive and defensive players
D. The player holding the ball
293. You are in the second base with two outs. The batter hits the ball into the air. What should you do?
A. Stay at your base.
B. Run as soon as the batter hits the ball
C. Go back to your base.
D. Wait and see if the ball is caught is before advancing to the next base.
294. What should a defensive do when there is a force out at the second base?
A. Tag the runner
B. Tag the second base
C. Neither is correct
D. Tag the runner and tag the second base
295. Which is the art of passing the ball fairly high and close to the net so that the spiker can spring into the air and smash it into opponent’s court?
A. Overhead Volley
B. Spiking
C. Setting
D. Tossing
296. When the serving team fail to serve the ball legally into the opponent’s court or return the ball
into the opponent’s court, the referee gives the decision. Which is referred to?
A. A side-out win no point awarded is called
B. A score of one point is given
C. A fault is declared
D. A time out is declared
297. A team is declared a winner of a set or game in volleyball, when the team is first to score .
A. 25 points
B. 15 points with an advantage of one point
C. 15 points with an advantage of one point
D. 19 points with an advantage of one point
298. The objective of the volleyball game is to
.
A. serve the ball legally into the opponent’s court
B. send the ball over the net to the ground of the opponent’s court
C. the team to reach least 15 points or more
D. make the ball remain in play without touching the ground
299. In volleyball game, when two teammates contact the ball simultaneously, it is considered two contacts for their team EXCEPT during .
A. blocking
B. spiking
C. dribbling
D. serving
300. In basketball, if players is fouled out while shooting for a goal and misses the shot, what is the penalty?
A. The ball is awarded to the offensive player
B. One penalty shot
C. Two penalty shot
D. three penalty shot
MAPEH ANSWER KEYS
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. D
20. B
21. A
22. B
23. D
24. B
25. C
26. A
27. A
28. C
29. A
30. D
31. A
32. C
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. A
38. D
39. A
40. B
41. A
42. D
43. A
44. A
45. C
46. B
47. B
48. C
49. B
50. C
51. A
52. C
53. A
54. B
55. A
56. A
57. C
58. D
59. A
60. C
61. A
62. C
63. A
64. A
65. A
66. A
67. C
68. A
69. C
70. D
71. A
72. C
73. D
74. B
75. D
76. D
77. B
78. D
79. D
80. C
81. D
82. B
83. B
84. C
85. D
86. B
87. C
88. D
89. A
90. D
91. D
92. C
93. D
94. D
95. D
96. D
97. A
98. C
99. D
100. B
101. A
102. C
103. A
104. B
105. A
106. A
107. C
108. D
109. A
110. C
111. A
112. C
113. A
114. A
115. A
116. A
117. C
118. A
119. C
120. D
121. A
122. C
123. D
124. B
125. D
126. D
127. B
128. D
129. D
130. C
131. D
132. B
133. B
134. C
135. D
136. B
137. C
138. D
139. A
140. D
141. D
142. C
143. D
144. D
145. D
146. D
147. A
148. C
149. D
150. B
151. C
152. C
153. A
154. B
155. A
156. A
157. C
158. D
159. B
160. D
161. B
162. A
163. C
164. B
165. D
166. B
167. C
168. C
169. A
170. D
171. C
172. A
173. D
174. B
175. D
176. B
177. A
178. A
179. D
180. A
181. D
182. C
183. B
184. B
185. D
186. A
187. C
188. C
189. D
190. D
191. C
192. C
193. A
194. C
195. B
196. D
197. B
198. C
199. D
200. C
201. A
202. D
203. C
204. B
205. A
206. A
207. C
208. B
209. C
210. A
211. B
212. B
213. C
214. A
215. D
216. C
217. B
218. A
219. A
220. D
221. D
222. D
223. A
224. D
225. A
226. A
227. D
228. D
229. A
230. D
231. B
232. C
233. D
234. C
235. A
236. C
237. B
238. A
239. A
240. A
241. C
242. D
243. A
244. A
245. B
246. B
247. D
248. A
249. B
250. A
251. C
252. A
253. C
254. A
255. D
256. B
257. B
258. B
259. B
260. A
261. A
262. B
263. A
264. C
265. B
266. B
267. D
268. C
269. A
270. B
271. A
272. C
273. A
274. D
275. A
276. C
277. A
278. A
279. A
280. B
281. A
282. B
283. A
284. A
285. A
286. A
287. A
288. A
289. A
290. A
291. C
292. C
293. B
294. D
295. D
296. B
297. A
298. A
299. A
300. C
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